How does the Tarski axioms of real numbers imply that for each x,y,z ( x<y if and only if x+z < y+z ) ?
By using the 1st and 6th axioms it's easy to demonstrate that x+z<y+z implies x<y. But how can I show the equivalence?
How does the Tarski axioms of real numbers imply that for each x,y,z ( x<y if and only if x+z < y+z ) ?
By using the 1st and 6th axioms it's easy to demonstrate that x+z<y+z implies x<y. But how can I show the equivalence?
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