This is confusing me a little. What is the Taylor series expansion of:
$$f(u,v) = u \times v$$
Around points (i.e., vectors) $u_0$ and $v_0$ up until the first derivative (i.e., no higher order terms than order 2)? Thank you!
Here's what I have so far: so we pick a small values near $(u_0, v_0)$ i.e.,: $$u = \bar{u} + u_0 $$ $$v = \bar{v} + v_0 $$
we want to express $f(u,v)$ as follows: $$f(u,v) \approx f(u_0, v_0) + \frac{\partial f (u,v)}{\partial u}\Big|_{(u_0,v_0)}\,\bar{u} + \frac{\partial f (u,v)}{\partial v}\Big|_{(u_0,v_0)}\,\bar{v}$$.
Which means the Taylor series expansion is given as follows: $$ % f(u,v) \approx u_0 \times v_0 + \frac{\partial}{ \partial u}(u \times v)\Big |_{(u_0,v_0)}\cdot \bar{u} \ \ + \frac{\partial}{ \partial v}(u \times v)\Big |_{(u_0,v_0)}\cdot \bar{v} % $$
$$ = u_0 \times v_0 + (\mathbb{1} \times v_0) \cdot \bar{u} \ \ + (u_0 \times \mathbb{1}) \cdot \bar{v} $$
where $\mathbb{1}$ is simply a column vector of ones i.e., $\frac{\partial }{\partial u}\begin{bmatrix}u_1 \\u_2 \\u_3 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix}1 \\1 \\1 \end{bmatrix}$.
Is this correct? Or should $\mathbb{1}$ be the idenity matrix $I_{3\times3}$ instead?
I guess @TedShifrin's comment is the direct approach, where you substitute $u = \bar{u} + u_0, v = \bar{v} + v_0$ in the function, expand, and drop terms that are second order and higher (i.e. involve multiplication, or cross product in this case, of at least two of $\bar{u}, \bar{v}$.
Here's my approach, kind of working backwards from the definition. We ultimately want something of the form $$f(u_0, v_0) + \frac{\partial f (u,v)}{\partial u}\Big|_{(u_0,v_0)}\,\bar{u} + \frac{\partial f (u,v)}{\partial v}\Big|_{(u_0,v_0)}\,\bar{v}, \quad \bar{u} \equiv u - u_0, \; \bar{v} \equiv v - v_0, \; \tag{1}\label{eq1}$$
Since $u$ is a vector, I don't know how to confidently calculate $\frac{\partial f (u,v)}{\partial u}$. So I start with the fundamental definition of the derivative for scalar variables, $$\frac{dy}{dx}\Big|_{x_0} = \lim_{x \to x_0} \frac{y(x) - y(x_0)}{x - x_0} = \lim_{\bar{x} \to 0} \frac{y(x_0 + \bar{x}) - y(x_0)}{\bar{x}}$$
Now if we try to directly use this formula for our vector situation, we have a problem as we'll be dividing by a vector, which is undefined. $$\frac{\partial f (u,v)}{\partial u}\Big|_{(u_0,v_0)} = \lim_{\bar{u} \to 0} \frac{f(u_0 + \bar{u},v_0) - f(u_0,v_0)}{\bar{u}}$$
But if we ignore the limit for now and rearrange, $$\frac{\partial f (u,v)}{\partial u}\Big|_{(u_0,v_0)} \bar{u} = f(u_0 + \bar{u},v_0) - f(u_0,v_0)$$
This we can use in our desired expansion, Eq. \eqref{eq1}, \begin{align} f(u_0, v_0) + &\left(f(u_0 + \bar{u},v_0) - f(u_0,v_0)\right)+ \left(f(u_0, v_0 + \bar{v}) - f(u_0,v_0)\right) \\&= f(u_0 + \bar{u},v_0) + f(u_0, v_0 + \bar{v}) - f(u_0,v_0) \end{align}
Applying the function $f(u,v) = u \times v$, \begin{align} (u_0 + \bar{u})\times v_0 &+ u_0 \times (v_0 + \bar{v}) - u_0 \times v_0 \\ &= u_0 \times v_0 + \bar{u}\times v_0 + u_0 \times \bar{v} \end{align}
So the Taylor series expansion is, $$f(u,v) \approx u_0 \times v_0 + \bar{u}\times v_0 + u_0 \times \bar{v} $$
*I did drop the limit from the derivative definition earlier, so there could be an error in this derivation, but I at least think the final result is correct