If a matrix $P$ is such $P^{-1}MP$ is diagonal, we say that $P$ diagonalizes $M$ (implicitly, as the matrix of an endomorphism).
Now, if $P^\top M P$ is diagonal, is it correct to say that $P$ diagonalizes $M$ as (the matrix of) a bilinear form? It seems correct to me but I have never read this, so I am wondering.
Yes, sure that is perfectly normal terminology (for example here, or here, or here or here. Frankly I'm a little surprised you never ran across this usage.)
The thing in common between the two processes is that they take two matrices that are expressing something as a matrix (resp. linear transformation, bilinear form) and connecting it with the new matrix after a change of basis (using, resp. similarity, cogredience). Whichever equivalence relation you are using, it makes perfect sense to call the classes represented by diagonal matrices "diagonalizable."