Does anyone think that tetration by a non-integer will ever be defined ... really properly?
Great mathematicians struggled with finding an implementation of the non-integer factorial for a long time to no avail ... and then eventually Leonhard Euler devised a means of doing it, & by a sleight-of-mind that was just so slick & so simple in its essence ... and yet so radical! Is there any scope for another such sleight-of-mind as that, whereby someone might do similarly for tetration, or have they all been used-up? It's impossible to conceive of how there might be any truly new conceptual resource left of that kind. But it's actually tautological that that is so, because the kind I am talking about is precisely the kind that is essentially radically new, & of even how it might be thought hitherto unconceived!
But the attempts I have seen so far at defining tetration by general real number look to me for all the world like mere interpolation - some of them indeed very thorough & cunning & ingenious (insofar as I can follow them atall) - but lacking that spark of essential innovation that is evinced in Euler's definition of the gamma function.
Just incase it seems I have gotten lost in philosophy, I'll repeat the question: will there ever be a definition of tetration by general real number that resolves the matter as thoroughly as Euler's definition of the gamma-function resolved the matter of factorial of general real number?
We're trying, but it's hard.
A better analogy than the Gamma function would be the way you can now define $x^y$ for real $y$. Why does $x^{3/2}$ make sense? Because I can solve $y^2=x^3$. (Admittedly any solution $y=y_0$ implies $y<y_0$ is a solution too, but we have a convention to get around that for $x>0$.)
So what would ${}^{3/2}x$ mean? Presumably, a solution of $y^y=x^{x^x}$ (although, as @GottfriedHelms notes, we can't expect a solution of ${}^2y={}^3x$ to also satisfy ${}^{2k}y={}^{3k}x$ for all $k\in\Bbb N$). Unfortunately, the values of $y^y$ for $y\in (0,\,\frac{1}{e})$ are repeated again for some $y>\frac{1}{e}$ in a... not particularly simple way, so it's already getting confusing. There are similar headaches when trying to define ${}^{k/(2l)}x$ for $x>0,\,k,\,l\in\mathbb{N},\,2\nmid k$.
(On second thoughts, ${}^42=2^{2^{2^2}}=2^{2^4}=2^{16}$ but ${}^2({}^22)=(2^2)^{2^2}=4^4=2^8$, so there's no ${}^{ab}x={}^a({}^bx)$ rule we can use in the above manner anyway.)
I'm not sure whether you can even prove ${}^yx$ with $y$ irrational can be defined by continuity, i.e. whether we can prove any rational sequence $y_n$ with $\lim_{n\to\infty}y_n=y$ gives the same $n\to\infty$ limit of ${}^{y_n}x$.
Having said all that, I bet we'll have made a lot of progress within 200 years (even if only in proving what we can't do).