If (X_1,...,X_m) ~ Bernoulli(p) and (Y_1,...Y_n) ~ Bernoulli(1-p), how should I go about finding the distribution for the statistic T = (Sum of X's) - (Sum of Y's) when X and Y are distributed independently??? Thanks!
2026-04-08 09:05:16.1775639116
The distribution for a function of Binomially distributed variables with different probabilities
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If $Y\sim\operatorname{Bernoulli}(1-p)$ then $1-Y\sim\operatorname{Bernoulli}(p).$
So \begin{align} & \sum_{i=1}^m X_i - \sum_{j=1}^n Y_i \\[10pt] = {} & \sum_{i=1}^m X_i + \sum_{j=1}^n (1-Y_i) - \sum_{j=1}^n 1 \\[10pt] = {} & \Big[ \text{the sum of $m+n$ indepedent Bernoulli$(p)$ random variables} \Big] - n. \end{align}