$$\int\frac{x}{16-x^4}\;dx$$ $\because$ $\frac{d}{dx}(\coth^{-1}\frac{x}{a}$)$=\frac{1}{a^2-x^2}$ ,And also $\frac{d}{dx}(\tanh^{-1}\frac{x}{a}$)$=\frac{1}{a^2-x^2}$
$\therefore$ If we say that $u=x^2$ we can rewrite the integral as $$\frac{1}{2}\int\frac{1}{4^2-u^2}\;du$$
Which of the two answers will be correct
$\frac{1}{8}\tanh^{-1}(\frac{x^2}{4})+C$ or $\frac{1}{8}\coth^{-1}(\frac{x^2}{4})+C$
Or are both of them correct and, if so, why ?
$ \newcommand{\arccoth}{\operatorname{arccoth}} \newcommand{\arctanh}{\operatorname{arctanh}} $They're both correct, in a sense.
As you have noticed, $\arctanh(x)$ and $\arccoth(x)$ have the same derivative. However, they're very different functions.
The key issue at play here is that they have totally different domains.
They have derivatives described by the same function, but only when restricting the domain to that set. Hence:
Consequently, for an integral of this form, an antiderivative doesn't tell you the whole story. You need to look at some definite integral over $[a,b]$, and use whichever antiderivative applies for that interval.