Let $g_n: \mathbb{N} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ and $f_n(x): \mathbb{N\times R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$.
If $g_n \rightarrow g$ and $f_n(g) \rightarrow f(g)$, can we deduce $f_n(g_n) \rightarrow f(g)$?
If we cannot deduce that unconditionally, what is the condition(s) for it to hold?
It is sufficient, if $f_n\to f$ uniformly on a neighborhood $U$ of $g$ and $f$ is continuous at $g$. Notice that for $n$ sufficiently large we have $g_n\in U$ and $$ |f_n(g_n) - f(g)| = |f_n(g_n) - f(g_n) + f(g_n) - f(g)| \le \|f_n - f \|_{\infty, U} + |f(g_n) - f(g)| \to 0. $$