Let $T:\mathbb{R}\to S^{1}\setminus\{(0, 1)\}$ be the map given by \begin{equation} T(t)=\left(\frac{2t}{1+t^2}, \frac{t^2-1}{1+t^2}\right) \end{equation} and let $X=T(\mathbb{Z})$. Let $d_1$ be the discrete metric on $X$, and $d_2$ be the metric on $X$ induced by Riemannian metric on $S^1$. I recently received a review report on my paper and Referee gave the above example and claimed that
$d_1$ and $d_2$ induce the same topology on $X$.
I don't understand it. Please help me Thanks
Yes, they induce the same topology, which is the topology for which every set is an open set. Note that the topology induced by the Riemannian metric on $S^1\setminus\{(0,0)\}$ is just the usual topology. For this topology, $T(\mathbb{Z})$ is indeed a discrete set.