How can we prove that the product of $n$ consecutive integers is divisible by $n$ factorial?
Note: In this subsequent question and the comments here the OP has clarified that he seeks a proof that "does not use the properties of binomial coefficients". Please post answers in said newer thread so that this incorrectly-posed question may be closed as a duplicate.
This is almost immediate from the fact that the binomial coefficient $$\binom{k+n}{k}$$ is an integer. Just write the product $(k+1) \cdots (k+n)$ accordingly and you'll have your answer.