The Sorgenfrey line is hereditarily Lindelöf

1.8k Views Asked by At

How can one show that the Sorgenfrey line is hereditarily Lindelöf (that is, all subspaces of the Sorgenfrey line are Lindelöf)?

I know the Sorgenfrey line is Lindelöf and hence every closed subspace is Lindelöf.

1

There are 1 best solutions below

0
On BEST ANSWER

First note the following characterisation of hereditary Lindelöfness:

Fact. A topological space $X$ is hereditarily Lindelöf iff given any family $\mathcal{U}$ of open subsets of $X$ there is a countable $\mathcal{U}_0 \subseteq \mathcal{U}$ such that $\bigcup \mathcal{U}_0 = \bigcup \mathcal{U}$.

proof. ($\Rightarrow$) If $X$ is hereditarily Lindelöf, then any family $\mathcal{U}$ of open subsets of $X$ is a cover of $A = \bigcup \mathcal{U}$ by open subsets of $X$, and so there is a countable $\mathcal{U}_0 \subseteq \mathcal{U}$ such that $A \subseteq \bigcup \mathcal{U}_0 \subseteq \bigcup \mathcal{U}$.

($\Leftarrow$) If $X$ is not hereditarily Lindelöf, then there is a subset $A \subseteq X$ and a cover $\mathcal{U}$ of $A$ by open subsets of $X$ such that $A \not\subseteq \bigcup \mathcal{U}_0$ for any countable $\mathcal{U}_0 \subseteq \mathcal{U}$. Clearly, $\bigcup \mathcal{U}_0 \neq \bigcup \mathcal{U}$ for all countable $\mathcal{U}_0 \subseteq \mathcal{U}$. $\dashv$

By this it suffices to show that for any family $\mathcal{U}$ of open sets in the Sorgenfrey line there is a countable $\mathcal{U}_0 \subseteq \mathcal{U}$ such that $\bigcup \mathcal{U}_0 = \bigcup \mathcal{U}$.

For each $U \in \mathcal{U}$ consider $\mathrm{Int}_{\mathbb R} ( U )$, where the interior is taken with respect to the usual metric topology on $\mathbb R$. As $\mathbb{R}$ is second-countable (and hence is itself hereditarily Lindelöf) there is a countable $\{ U_i : i \in \mathbb{N} \} \subseteq \mathcal{U}$ such that $$\bigcup_{i \in \mathbb{N}} \mathrm{Int}_{\mathbb R} ( U_i ) = \bigcup \{ \mathrm{Int}_{\mathbb R} ( U ) : U \in \mathcal{U} \}.$$

Note that if $x \in \bigcup \{ U : U \in \mathcal{U} \} \setminus \bigcup_{i \in \mathbb N} U_i$ then in particular $x \notin \mathrm{Int}_{\mathbb R} ( U )$ for all $U \in \mathcal{U}$, and so let us consider $A = \bigcup \{ U : U \in \mathcal{U} \} \setminus \bigcup \{ \mathrm{Int}_{\mathbb R} ( U ) : U \in \mathcal{U} \}$. I claim that $A$ is countable. For each $x \in A$ there is a $\epsilon_x > 0$ such that $[ x , x+ \epsilon_x ) \subseteq U$ for some $U \in \mathcal{U}$, and note that $( x , x+ \epsilon_x ) \subseteq \mathrm{Int}_{\mathbb R} ( U )$, so $( x , x+ \epsilon_x ) \cap A = \emptyset$. It follows that $\{ ( x , x+\epsilon_x ) : x \in A \}$ is a pairwise disjoint family of open sets in the metric topology on $\mathbb{R}$ and is therefore countable.

For each $x \in A$ pick $U_x \in \mathcal{U}$ containing $x$. Then $\mathcal{U}_0 = \{ U_i : i \in \mathbb N \} \cup \{ U_x : x \in A \}$ is a countable subfamily of $\mathcal{U}$ with the same union.