I was wondering if it is safe to assume that
$$ (1/t)y'(t) + (1/t)y(t) = 0 $$
is a time-varying differential equation.
I would say these (1/t) factors cancel out and make the eq. time invariant. But I was not completely sure.
2026-03-26 12:42:31.1774528951
Time-invariant Differential Equation
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