Let $\phi(x)$ be solution of $$x=\int_{0}^{x}\exp(x-t)\phi(t)dt, \quad x\gt0.$$ Then $\phi(1)$ is given by
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Now I know how to verify whether a function is solution of integral equation or not but here I guess $\phi(x)=x$ gives $\phi(1)=1$. Am I right? Please help me to find the correct option
Use the fundamental theorem of calculus
$$\dfrac{d}{dx}\int_{0}^{x}\exp(x-t)\phi(t)dt=\exp(x-x)\phi(x)+\int_{0}^{x}\dfrac{d\exp(x-t)}{dx}\phi(t)dt$$
and differentiate the given equation with respect to $x$ to obtain:
$$1=\exp(x-x)\phi(x)+\int_{0}^{x}\exp(x-t)\phi(t)dt$$ $$1=\phi(x)+x\implies \phi(x)=1-x$$