Let $L/K$ be an abelian $p$-extension of number fields and $E$ be an elliptic curve over $\Bbb Q$. If $E[p](K)=0$, does it follow that $E[p](L)=0$ ? The converse is obviously true, but I don't have any reference for my problem.
2026-03-25 05:07:05.1774415225
Torsion of elliptic curves and abelian extensions
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