I'm looking at a proof and as part of the proof they say that line segment $f_iW_n$ has shorter length than $f_iW_m$, and that $f_kW_m$ has shorter length than $f_kW_n$. They said that this is true by the triangle inequality. Is there a property with intersecting lines that I'm missing?
The question is an extremal principal problem that asks us to form a bijective map between $2n$ points where $n$ points, indexed by $f$ are mapped to the other $n$ points, indexed by $W$m, such that no lines between these points intersect. There's the added condition that no $3$ lines are collinear. Here's the proof, but the only part relevant to my question is where they use the triangle inequality.


The solution in your image is correct, but your own interpretation is wrong.
It is not true in general that
What is true in general is that the combined lengths of $f_iW_n$ and $f_kW_m$ is shorter than the combined lengths of $f_iW_m$ and $f_kW_n$, and this is indeed due to the triangle inequality: