It can be proved that $\forall\varepsilon>0$ there exists $C(\epsilon)>0$ such that for all $f,g\in L^{1,\infty}(\Bbb R^n)$ we have that $$ ||f+g||_{1,\infty}\le(1+\varepsilon)||f||_{1,\infty}+C(\varepsilon)||g||_{1,\infty}$$ for example $C(\epsilon)=1+\frac1{\varepsilon}$ works.
I have some problem in proving this inequality fails for $\varepsilon=0$. I should prove that for every $C>0$ there exist $f_C,g_C\in L^{1,\infty}(\Bbb R^n)$ such that
$$ ||f+g||_{1,\infty}>||f||_{1,\infty}+C||g||_{1,\infty} $$ but it seems really hard. I thought I can take some sequence of functions but I can't put this idea into concrete computations.
Can someone help me?
EDIT: Given $f:\Bbb R^n\to\Bbb R$ measurable we define, for $\alpha>0$, $\lambda_f(\alpha):=|\{x\in\Bbb R^n\;:\;|f(x)|>\alpha\}|$ (given a subset $E\subseteq\Bbb R^n$, we set |E| to denote its Lebesgue measure).
Then we set $$ L^{1,\infty}(\Bbb R^n):=\{f:\Bbb R^n\to\Bbb R\;\mbox{measurable}\;:\exists C>0\;\;\mbox{s. t.}\;\; \lambda_f(\alpha)\le\frac C{\alpha}\;\forall \alpha>0\}\;\;\;. $$
Finally we set $||f||_{1,\infty}$ as the infimum of such $C$'s.
Here's an example for $\mathbb{R}$, though it can likely be generalized to higher dimensions.
Fix an integer $n\geqq 2$, and define $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ by $f(x)=\frac{n}{i}$ if $x\in [\frac{i-1}{n},\frac{i}{n})$, $1\leq i\leq n$, and $f(x)=0$ otherwise. Then $||f||_{1,\infty}=1$.
Define a map $T:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ by $T(x)=x+\frac{1}{n}$ (mod 1) if $x\in[0,1)$, and $T(x)=x$ otherwise. For $1\leq j\leq n$, let $f_j(x)=f(T^jx)$.
Then $||f_j||_{1,\infty}=1$ for $1\leq j\leq n$, but $\sum_{j=1}^nf_j$ is equal to the constant function $n\sum_{j=1}^n\frac{1}{j}$ on $[0,1)$, hence $$ \Big|\Big|\sum_{j=1}^nf_j\Big|\Big|_{1,\infty}=n\sum_{j=1}^n\frac{1}{j} $$
There is a constant $c>0$ such that $n\sum_{j=1}^n\frac{1}{j}\geq cn\log n$ for all $n\geq 2$, hence we have shown that for each $n\geq 2$ there exist $f_1,\dots,f_n$ with $||f_j||_{1,\infty}=1$ such that $$ \Big|\Big|\sum_{j=1}^nf_j\Big|\Big|_{1,\infty}\geq cn\log n$$
If the triangle inequality holds with some constant $C$, then for any functions $g_1,\dots,g_n$ with $||g_j||_{1,\infty}=1$ we have $$||g_1+\dots+g_n||_{1,\infty}\leq ||g_1+\dots+g_{n-1}||_{1,\infty}+C\leq\dots\leq 1+(n-1)C$$
But for any constant $C$ we can choose an $n$ sufficiently large that $$ cn\log n>1+(n-1)C$$ hence the triangle inequality cannot hold.