Show that if $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[a,b]$, then
$$\left(\int_{a}^{b}f(x)\sin x\ dx\right)^2+\left(\int_{a}^{b}f(x)\cos x\ dx\right)^2\le(b-a)\int_{a}^{b}f^2(x)\ dx.$$
I know I need to use the Hölder Inequality in some form, but I am not sure how to rewrite the left side of the equation. I know I can rewrite the right side as $\left(\int_{a}^{b}\sin^2x+\cos^2x\ dx\right)\left(\int_{a}^{b}f^2(x)\ dx\right)$, but I'm struggling to invoke any established inequalities because of the addition. Thanks for any shared insights!
By C-S $$(b-a)\int\limits_a^bf(x)^2dx=\int\limits_a^bf(x)^2\sin^2xdx\int_a^b1dx+\int\limits_a^bf(x)^2\cos^2xdx\int_a^b1dx\geq$$ $$\geq\left(\int\limits_a^bf(x)\sin{x}dx\right)^2+\left(\int\limits_a^bf(x)\cos{x}dx\right)^2.$$ Actually, $f^2(x)=f(f(x))$ and $f(x)^2=\left(f(x)\right)^2.$