I'm told that intuitionistic logic is basically classical logic with "law of the excluded middle removed", and that you can't from $\neg \neg A$ infer $A$.
So, if we consider $A$ a state, $\neg A$ a state, and $\neg \neg A$ a state, does this mean that $\neg \neg \neg A$ is a separable state?
No, $\neg \neg \neg A$ is equivalent to $\neg A$.
Given $\neg\neg\neg A$:
1. $\neg \neg \neg A$ (premise)
2.1. $A$ (assumption)
2.2.1. $\neg A$ (assumption)
2.2.2. $A$ (reiterate 2)
2.2.3. $\bot$ (contradiction 4 3)
2.3. $\neg\neg A$ ($\neg$intro 2.2.1-2.2.3)
2.4. $\neg\neg\neg A$ (reiterate 1)
2.5. $\bot$ (contradiction 2.3 2.4)
3. $\neg A$ ($\neg$intro 2.1-2.5)
Given $\neg A$:
1. $\neg A$ (premise)
2.1. $\neg \neg A$ (assumption)
2.2. $\neg A$ (reiterate 1)
2.3. $\bot$ (contradiction 2.2 2.1)
3. $\neg\neg\neg A$ ($\neg$intro 2.1-2.3)