I was reading Pell's equation, and in the beginning there is a statement:
Notice that if $D = d^2$ is a perfect square, then this problem can be solved using difference of squares. We would have $x^2 - Dy^2 = (x+dy)(x-dy) = 1$, from which we can use casework to quickly determine the solutions.
How to determine the solution? my thoughts: $$(x+dy)= {1\over(x-dy)}$$ and since x+dy is an integer($x,y,d \in \Bbb Z$), we have $$x-dy = \pm1 = x+dy$$ $$2dy = \pm1$$ $$y = \pm{1\over2d}$$
I guess I broke it down into two cases ($\pm1$) but somehow I got there does not exist any solution for the trivial case (x,y must be integral solutions) but x = 1 y = 0 is a solution, where did I make a mistake? does this trivial case have infinitely many solutions?
The trivial case doesn't have infinitely many solutions and you can see why by thinking about the sequence of squares.
The equation $$x^2 - d^2y^2 = 1$$ says that we have two square numbers one after the other, $0^1$ and $1^2$ is an example - there are no others since squares get further and further apart.
Proof: For $m^2 = 1 + n^2$ with $n$ positive we must have $m > n$ but $m = n+1$ is too large (since $(n+1)^2 = n^2 + 2n + 1$) and so is any larger $m$ so there are no solutions.