So I had this thought that I was trying to prove as an exercise
Let $\mathbb{R}$ be the set of real numbers and let $\mathbb{S}$ be the set of all possible rearrangements of the alternating harmonic series. Prove that $|\mathbb{R}| < |\mathbb{S}|$
I thought I had a proof of this, but I then posted it to Reddit /r/math only to be downvoted and told the proof was wrong. The only comment I received was to "look at it from the other direction", but that confused me.
Here is my proof:
Two sets have the same cardinality iff there exists a bijection between them.
From the rearrangement theorem we can show that a the alternating harmonic series can converge to any real number via the following algorithm:
Start with $1$, if this is larger than the target number add the next negative term, otherwise add the next positive term. We create a mapping from the created rearrangement to the limit of this rearrangement. Notice that this maps to all real numbers.
Now take one of the series that we had, and switch the first two terms. This is a new rearrangement since it does not begin with $1$, so it should be mapped to a new real number. However all real numbers have already had a rearrangement mapped to them. As such we have two rearrangements pointing to a single real number, which means that our mapping is not a bijection.
As such there must be more rearrangements than real numbers.
Now I am not sure where my proof went wrong, so any help would be appreciated!
Consider the function $F\colon\Bbb{N\to N}$ defined by: $$F(n)=\begin{cases} 0 & n=0\\ n-1 & n>0\end{cases}$$ by your argument, since this function is not a bijection (clearly $F(0)=F(1)$ so it is not injective), $\Bbb N$ is not the same size as $\Bbb N$.
What just happened? You've proved, as I did above, there is a surjective function which is not injective. But that doesn't prevents a different function to be a bijection.
Cantor's diagonal works by showing that any function is not surjective, and therefore there are no bijections. But you've only showed that one function is not injective, and concluded that there are no bijections.
You have to remember: Infinite sets are very different from finite sets. Just because one function is a surjection which is not a bijection doesn't mean there a different one is not.
Here's an injective function from the rearrangements into the reals:
Let $f\colon\Bbb{N\to N}$ be the permutation describing the rearrangement. Namely, $f(n)=k$ if and only if the $k$th summand is $\frac1n$ (up to a sign, if you prefer). Map the rearrangement given by $f$ to the real number given by: $$\sum_{n\in\Bbb N}\frac2{3^{2^n\cdot 3^{f(n)}}}$$
This sum converges, and you can quite easily show that if $f\neq g$, then there is some $n$ such that $f(n)\neq g(n)$ and therefore one of the digits in the trenary expansion of the two reals is different, and since those are only $0$ or $2$ this means that the real numbers are different. Therefore the map from rearrangements into the real numbers given above is injective.
On the other hand, you can easily show that there are at least $2^{\aleph_0}$ rearrangements, but I will leave this to you as an exercise.