Consider a random sequence of integers
1, 4, 3, 8, 2, 5, 3, 8 ...
The only sufficient condition for the sequence to be random is its unpredictability ie. probability of any number coming next must be equal to $\frac{1}{10}$.
Now consider that we are getting only numbers less than 5 in the sequence, it then implies that for the sequence to be random the probability of getting numbers greater than 5 is now more, this does not follow the randomness criteria as numbers are now in some form more predictable.
Do the two aspects of randomness contradict with each other?
Or am I wrong somewhere in this deductive thinking?
Welcome to MSE,
This is not true. If every choice of digits is independent, there is no change in the probabilities for the next digit of the sequence.
You can take a look at this question, which is somehow close to yours.
Does the probability change if you know previous results?
If that's not what you are asking please provide us with more details.