I am very confused about the area of an ellipse. I tried to derive it using two different methods. The cartesian coordinate method yielded $\pi ab $, as expected. Then using polar coordinates I got $\pi (a^2+b^2)/2$. I had never seen this form for the area before so at first I thought I did something wrong. But in one place here, I found that someone also had this expression. The person who have this result left it to the OP to show that these were equivalent. I have been trying to do so, but can't seem to get this result. In particular, I'd the above two were equivalent then
$a^2+b^2=2ab$
$(a-b)^2=0$
$a=b $
Which cannot be right! Help!
The difficulty here is expressing the ellipse in polar coordinates. Given that
$$y=b\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}{a^2}}\\ r^2=x^2+y^2=x^2+b^2\left(1-\frac{x^2}{a^2} \right)=r^2\cos^2\theta\left(1-\frac{b^2}{a^2} \right)+b^2$$ and finally $$ r^2(\theta)=\frac{b^2}{1-\left(1-\frac{b^2}{a^2} \right)\cos^2\theta} $$
You can readily validate this in a polar plot. The area is given by
$$A=\frac{1}{2}\int_0^{2\pi}r^2d\theta$$
I cannot see my way to clear to evaluating this integral and Wolfram Alpha gives the indefinite integral as
$$\frac{1}{2}\int r^2d\theta=\frac{ab}{2}\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{a\tan\theta}{b} \right)$$
which appears to give an area of zero, except when $a=b$ and $A=\pi a^2$. Wolfram Alpha was unable to give the definite integral. However, I can attest to the fact that a numerical integration does indeed give $A=\pi ab$.