I'm trying to understand the UMP of the product functor as right adjoint to the diagonal functor but I'm having difficulties understanding the notation in Steve Awodey's Category Theory. On page 210 he uses $(f_1, f_2)$, $\langle f_1, f_2 \rangle$ and $(f_1 \times f_2)$ all within one paragraph. What are those? How are these defined and how do they differ?
2026-03-25 09:48:53.1774432133
UMP of product functor
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Short answer:
Before making this more precise, it might be nice to have an example (which may also explain the notation). Suppose we have sets $A$, $X$ and $Y$, and functions $f_1: A \to X$ and $f_2: A \to Y$. Then we can do the following.
We can actually formalise all these constructions category-theoretically (assuming our category has products). Similar set-up as above, but now $A$, $X$ and $Y$ are objects in our category and $f_1: A \to X$ and $f_2: A \to Y$ are arrows in our category.