I have the question:
$$1 + 8 + 27 + \dots + n^3 = \frac {n^2(n+1)^2}n$$
But doesn't this fail the base case? If we plug in a $1$ on both sides of the problem we get $1 = 4$. Which is not true. Does that mean we can't prove this further?
Any help would be extremely appreciated!
The denominator should be $4$. Obviously, the right-hand side needs to be a quartic.