Suppose we have a sequence of i.i.d. random variables $(X_n)_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ with $\mathbf{P}(X_n = -1) = \frac{1}{2}, \mathbf{P}(X_n = 0) = \frac{1}{3}, \mathbf{P}(X_n = 1) = \frac{1}{6}$. Denote $\tau = \inf\{n > 0 : X_1 + \ldots + X_n = 1\}$. Show that $\mathbf{P}(\tau = \infty) = \frac{2}{3}$.
As a matter of fact, I have no idea how to approach this question. In the same task I had to prove that $(3^{X_1 + \ldots + X_n}, \sigma(X_1, \ldots, X_n))$ is a martingale but I don't see how it helps in any way to solve the main question, because our stopping time is not bounded.
Hints: