In chapter $II$ of Hartshorne, theorem $4.9$ shows that every projective morphism is proper, using the valuative criterion for properness. I understand how the required morphism is constructed, but I don't understand why it is unique. I would greatly appreciate an explanation explaining why "The uniqueness of this morphism follows from the construction and the way the $V_i$ patch together."
I can see why any morphism with image lying inside $V_k$, the affine open piece $D_+(X_k)$, is unique but I don't see why it should be the case that the image of any morphism of the correct form should lie inside $V_k$.
The key fact seems to be this:
Hence, for any local ring $R$, any scheme $X$, any open cover $\{ U_\alpha \}$ of $X$, and any morphism $\operatorname{Spec} R \to X$, there is some $U_\alpha$ through which the morphism factors.
To apply this to the situation at hand, simply observe that valuation rings are local rings.