I was trying to understand the proof for the following proposition.
Proposition: If $\{f_n\}$ is a sequence of $\bar{\mathbb{R}}$ valued measurable functions on $(X,\mathcal{M})$, then the functions
$$g_1(x) = \sup_j f_j(x)$$ $$g_2(x) = \inf_j f_j(x)$$ $$g_3(x) = \lim_{j\rightarrow \infty} \sup f_j(x)$$ $$g_4(x) = \lim_{j\rightarrow \infty} \inf f_j(x)$$
are all measurable.
In the proof, it is given that $g_1^{-1}((a,\infty]) = \bigcup_1^{\infty}f_j^{-1}((a,\infty])$ and $g_2^{-1}([\infty,a)) = \bigcup_1^{\infty}f_j^{-1}([\infty,a)))$.
I am unable to understand these inverses of $g$. Can you please explain this?
Recall that $g_1^{-1}((a,\infty])$ means the set $\{x\in X:g_1(x)\in (a,\infty]\}$ (called the preimage of the set $(a,\infty]$ under $g_1$).
We are told that $g_1(x)=\sup\{f_j(x)\}$. This tells us two things:
(This is just the definition of a least upper bound.)
Now in order to show that $$ g_1^{-1}((a,\infty])=\bigcup f_j^{-1}((a,\infty]) $$ we need to show that:
I think you can prove both those things yourself. Then try and use the same argument for $g_2^{-1}([-\infty,a))$.