In Gowers's article "How to lose your fear of tensor products", he uses two ways to construct the tensor product of two vector spaces $V$ and $W$. The following are the two ways I understand:
- $V\otimes W:=\operatorname{span}\{[v,w]\mid v\in V,w\in W\}$ where $[v,w]:{\mathcal L}(V\times W;{\mathbb R})\to {\mathbb R}$ such that $$[v,w](f)\mapsto f(v,w)$$
- $V\otimes W:=Z/E$ where $Z:=\operatorname{span}\{[[v,w]]\mid v\in V,w\in W\}$ and $E$ is the subspace of $Z$ generated by all vectors of one of the following four forms: $$\begin{align} & [[v,w+w']]-[[v,w]]-[[v,w']]\\ & [[v+v',w]]-[[v,w]]+[[v',w]] \\ & [[av,w]]-a[[v,w]] \\ & [[v,aw]]-a[[v,w]] \end{align}$$
Here are my questions:
- Are the definitions I wrote above correct?
- They look so different. How are they essentially the same?
- The set $\operatorname{span}\{[v,w]\mid v\in V,w\in W\}$ in (1) and $Z$ in (2) seem to be the "same". Do we have $Z\cong Z/E$ here?
The first definition comes from the philosophy that students are bad at understanding abstract definitions and would prefer to see the tensor product defined as a space of functions of some kind. This is the reason that some books define the tensor product of $V$ and $W$ to simply be the space of bilinear functions $V \times W \to k$ ($k$ the underlying field), but this defines what in standard terminology is called the dual $(V \otimes W)^{\ast}$ of the tensor product.
For finite-dimensional vector spaces, $(V^{\ast})^{\ast}$ is canonically isomorphic to $V$, and that is the property that Gowers is taking advantage of in the first definition, which is basically a definition of $((V \otimes W)^{\ast})^{\ast} \cong V \otimes W$. The second definition is essentially the standard definition.
To answer your last question, no, we do not. $Z$ is infinite-dimensional whenever the underlying field is infinite. It is really, really huge, in fact pointlessly huge; the relations are there for a reason.