Suppose that $\nu$ is a $\sigma$-finite signed measure and $\mu$, $\lambda$ are $\sigma$-finite measures on $(X,M)$ such that $\nu<<\mu$ and $\mu << \lambda$.
a. If g $\in L_1(\mu)$ then $\int g d\nu=\int g \frac{d\nu}{d\mu}d\mu$
b. We have $\nu << \lambda $ and $\frac{d\nu}{d\lambda}$=$ \frac{d\nu}{d\lambda}\frac{d\mu}{d\lambda} $ $\lambda$ a.e.
The proof in Folland is given as for part b:

I don't understand how g=$X_E \frac{d\nu}{d\mu}$ results in: $\nu(E)= \int_E \frac{d\nu}{d\mu}d\mu=\int_E \frac{d\nu}{d\mu}\frac{d\mu}{d\lambda}d\lambda$? I know it sort of follows from part a but I don't exactly see all the steps. Any help would be much appreciated as I am struggling very deeply. Thank you.
I have never ever read Folland, so I am guessing what he is doing in a. He must define the set $\mathscr{H}_+$ of the positive measurable functions $g$ such that $$\int\limits g d\nu = \int\limits g f d\mu,$$ where $f$ is the corresponding density of $\nu$ with respect to $\mu.$ By the usual way Folland proves, I guess, that $\mathscr{H}_+$ is all positive measurable functions hence the result of a. comes just by appealing to integrability.
As for b. he observes first that $\nu(\mathrm{E}) = \int\limits_\mathrm{E} d\nu = \int\limits \mathbf{1}_\mathrm{E} f d\mu,$ but by the result of a., he also knows that $\int g d\mu = \int gh d\lambda,$ where $h$ is a density of $\mu$ with respect to $\lambda$ and $g$ is any integrable function, so applying this to $g = \mathbf{1}_\mathrm{E} f$ he concludes that $\nu(\mathrm{E}) = \int \mathbf{1}_\mathrm{E} fh d\lambda = \int\limits_\mathrm{E} fh d\lambda,$ hence, by the Lebesgue-Nikodym theorem, $fh$ is a density for $\nu$ with respect to $\lambda.$ Q.E.D.