I've tried to find the answer to this question but haven't had any luck so far. I know that if a function is continuous over a closed interval, then it is uniformly continuous over the same interval.
So, if we know a function is uniformly continuous over $[a, b]\in \mathbb R$, can we assume that it is uniformly continuous over any subset of $[a,b]$ (in particular, $(a, b)$)? If not, why?
Thanks in advance for any help you may be able to give me.
Consider the definition of uniform continuity:
Now can you restrict this condition to any subset of $[a,b]$?