The problem goes as follows:
$$\text{Show that if } f_n \text{ uniformly converges to a continuous function } f \text{, then }\\ f_n(x+\frac{1}{n}) \text{ pointwise converges to} f(x) \text{ }\forall x \in \mathbb{R}$$
I know that: $$ x + \frac{1}{n} \to x \text{ as } n \to \infty \Rightarrow f(x + \frac{1}{n}) \to f(x)\text{ as }n \to \infty $$
I also know that: $$\text{Since } f_n \text{ uniformly converges to } f, \forall \varepsilon >0 \text{ }\exists N\in\mathbb{N} \text{ such that } \forall x \in D_f, \forall n \ge N\\|f_n(x)-f(x)|<\varepsilon$$
Don't know how to proceed but I haven't used the fact that $ f $ continuous yet.
Thanks in advance!
Let $\epsilon>0$. By uniform convergence we can find $N$ such that $|f_{n}-f|<\epsilon/2$ for all $n>N$. By continuity we can find $\delta_{x}$ such that $|f(y)-f(x)|<\epsilon/2$ for all $y$ satisfying $|x-y|<\delta_x$. Let $M=\max(N,1/\delta_{x})$. Then, for all $n>M$, \begin{align*} \left|f_{n}(x+1/n)-f(x)\right| &=\left|f_{n}(x+1/n)-f(x+1/n)+f(x+1/n)-f(x)\right|\\ &\leq\left|f_{n}(x+1/n)-f(x+1/n)\right|+\left|f(x+1/n)-f(x)\right|\\ &<\epsilon/2 + \epsilon/2=\epsilon. \end{align*}