Let $X_1,X_2,...$ be independent, identically distributed (iid) random variables with distribution Bernoulli$(1/2)$. Define the random variable: $$Y=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{X_n}{2^n}.$$ Then $Y$ is unifromly distributed over the unit interval $[0,1]$. The proof of this result can be found in our mathstacexchange: Series of independent Bernoulli variables
But the inverse proposition:
If $Y$ is a uniform random variable on unit interval $[0,1]$, and $$Y=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{X_n}{2^n}.$$ then $X_1,X_2,...$ are iid sequences of Bernoulli$(1/2)$.
How can we prove this result?
If you require $X_i\in \{0,1\}$ for all $i$, then what you wrote seems true. $X_i$ determines the $i$th digit in the binary expansion of $Y$, so if $Y$ is uniform, the $i$th digit in the binary expansion is equally likely to be $0$ and $1$, so we must have $X_i\sim \text{Bern}(.5)$. It is tedious, but not too conceptually difficult, to see that any set of indices for digits of the binary expansion of a uniform random variable is independent, so the set of $X_n$ must be independent. Therefore, $X_1,\ldots$ is iid $\text{Bern}(.5)$.