I know this question has been asked on this site before (here, here and a few more), but here I have less assumptions. $f: X \to Y$ is uniformly continuous such that $X \subseteq \mathbb{R}$, but I am not assuming anything on $Y$, i.e. It is a general metric space, not necessarily complete. I am also not assuming that $X$ is closed.
Is this, generally, true that $f$ maps bounded sets in $X$ to bounded sets in $Y$? My professor seems to suggest so, but it seems impossible without compactness, either assuming $X$ is closed or that $Y$ is complete such that there is a uniformly continuous extension of $f$ to $\mathrm{Cl}(A)$.
If it is not possible, can you provide me with a counterexample?
Take $\widetilde{Y}$ the completion of $Y$, and consider the extension $$\widetilde{f}:\overline{X} \to \widetilde{Y}.$$
If $A \subset X$ is bounded, then so is $\mathrm{cl}_{\overline{X}}A=\mathrm{cl}_{\mathbb{R}}A$, and thus $\mathrm{cl}_{\overline{X}}A$ is compact. Hence, $\widetilde{f}(\mathrm{cl}_{\overline{X}}A)$ is bounded, since it is compact. In particular, $\widetilde{f}(A)=f(A)$ is bounded.
As a sidenote, $X$ being a subspace (metric subspace) is important. $\mathbb{Z}$ with the discrete metric (which, "as a topological space", is a subspace of $\mathbb{R}$) is such that $f:\mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{R};$ $x \mapsto x$ is uniformly continuous but does not map bounded sets to bounded sets.