Let $\pi:E\rightarrow M$ be a locally trivial fiber bundle, i.e. for every $x\in M$ there is a neighbourhood of $U_x\ni x$, $U_x\subset M$, a space $F_x$, and a homeomorphism $\phi_x:\pi^{-1}(U_x)\rightarrow U_x\times F_x$ such that $\pi=\pi_1\circ \phi_x$, $\ \pi_1:U_x\times F_x\rightarrow U_x$. That would give us a local trivialization $\{U_i, \phi_i\}$ and a cover $\{U_i\}$.
I want to show that for connected component of $M$ (let's just assume $M$ is connected) we can choose one $F$ and every $F_x$ will be homeomorphic to it.
Is it true that $\phi_b:\pi^{-1}(b)\rightarrow \{b\}\times F_b$ is a homeomorphism (as well as $\tilde\phi_b:\pi^{-1}(b)\rightarrow F_b,\ \tilde\phi_b=\pi_2\circ\phi_b$)? My assumption is that we can consider it as a restriction of $\phi_b:\pi^{-1}(U_b)\rightarrow U_b\times F_b$ with $\phi_b(\pi^{-1}(b))=\{b\}\times {F_b}$. But how can I show it in a more formal way?
My next step is to show that on intersection of $U_x\cap U_y\ni z$ the following map $\phi_z|_{U_x\cap U_y}\circ\phi^{-1}_z|_{U_x\cap U_y}: \{z\}\times F_x\rightarrow \{z\}\times F_y$ is a homeomorphism, hence $F_x\cong F_y$.
Finally I want to use that for connected spaces the following is true: for every collection $\{U_\alpha\}$ of open subsets of $M$ with $M=\cup U_\alpha$ and every two points $x,y\in M$, there are finitely many $U_1,U_2,...,U_n∈\{U_\alpha\}$ such that $x\in U_1, U_i\cap U_{i+1}\ne \emptyset$ for all $1\leq i< n$, and $y\in U_n$. But is it the only way how we can prove it? Is it crucial to use finiteness here?
If you want to prove (2), you should actually generalize (1) to show that, for any $b' \in U_b$, the map $\pi^{-1}(b') \xrightarrow{\phi_b} \{b'\} \times F_b \xrightarrow{\pi_2} F_b$ is a homeomorphism.
This is the composition of the homeomorphism from (1) applied to $z \in U_y$ and the inverse of the homeomorphism from (1) applied to $z \in U_x$.
I think it's easier to show that the set of $x$ for which $F_x$ is homeomorphic to your fixed $F$ is both open and closed. Both of these follow from the (generalized version of) 1, since $F_b' \cong F_b$ for any $b' \in U_b$ so $F_b'$ is homeomorphic to $F$ iff $F_b$ is.