A set $X$ with a subset $\tau\subset \mathcal{P}(X)$ is called a topological space if:
- $X\in\tau$ and $\emptyset\in \tau$.
- Let $L$ be any set. If $\{A_\lambda\}_{\lambda\in L}=\mathcal{A}\subset\tau$ then $\bigcup_{\lambda\in L} A_\lambda\in\tau$.
- Let $M$ be finite set. If $\{A_\lambda\}_{\lambda\in M}=\mathcal{A}\subset\tau$ then $\bigcap_{\lambda\in M} A_\lambda\in\tau$.
Let $\emptyset=\mathcal{A}=\{A_\lambda\}_{\lambda\in N}$, i.e $N=\emptyset$. Then by 2:
$$\bigcap_{\lambda\in N} A_\lambda=\{x\in X; \forall \lambda\in N\text{ we have }x\in A_\lambda\}=X\in\tau,$$
since $N$ is empty. And by 3:
$$\bigcup_{\lambda\in N} A_\lambda=\{x\in X; \exists \lambda\in N\text{ such that }x\in A_\lambda\}=\emptyset\in\tau,$$
since $N$ is empty. Then 2 and 3 implies 1.
Many books define a topology with 1,2 and 3. But I think that 1 is not necessary because I was prove that 2,3 $\Rightarrow$ 1.
Am I right?
The problem is that as you formulated that $\bigcap\varnothing$ is the set of all elements $x\in X$ that for every $A\in\varnothing$ we have $x\in A$, this is satisfied by all the elements of $X$.
Note that $\bigcup\varnothing$ is well-defined in ZF since the axiom of union says it is a set, and we can prove that this set is indeed $\varnothing$. However $\bigcap\varnothing$ is not well defined, because as I remark above, it can result with the collection of "everything", which in set theory is not a set at all, and in this case - not even empty.