Does anyone know how to simplify the following sum? It's been giving me and everyone else I've showed it to quite a bit of trouble. I'm quite confident that this should simplify, but I just can't seem to see how. \begin{equation} \sum_{d=k}^{n} {d \choose k} p^{d}(1-p)^{n-d} \end{equation}
Where k is greater than 1. Please note that the sum varies over the upper index of the binomial. The attempts thus far have pretty much all involved expressing the terms as a series and trying to relate that series to the product of the derivatives of order up to and including d. This method is proving intractable as it only works for k=2, otherwise we get the product of the product (k-1 times) of a series involving higher order derivatives, which is hardly a simplification. Any and all insights are welcome.
Note: Here's is an answer providing a closed formula for the (simple) special case $p=\frac{1}{2}$. Since the used approach is often helpful to also find a general solution, it indicates that there is presumably no closed formula of OPs expression $$\sum_{d=k}^{n}\binom{d}{k}p^d(1-p)^{n-d}\qquad\qquad 0\leq k\leq n$$
We use the coefficient of operator $[z^n]$ to denote the coefficient of $z^n$ of a series. So, we can write e.g. $$\binom{d}{k}=[z^k](1+z)^d$$
Comment:
In (1) we apply the formula for finite geometric series
in (2) we could try to go on by expanding the denominator as series $$\frac{1}{1-(1+z)q}=\sum_{l\geq 0}\left((1+z)q\right)^l$$ and extracting via $[z^k]$ the coefficent of $z^k$. Regrettably, when doing so we will finally come back to the expression where we've started. But at least for the special case $p=\frac{1}{2}$ we can proceed.
and conclude