I want to show that the series
$$\sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{1}{(n+1)^{a+1}}\sum_{k=0}^n b^k\left(\frac{(n-k)!}{n!}\right)^a$$
converges for $a,b>0$. I have tried this so much that the smallest hint will probably suffice. I asked a question before which would have been enough but it is not true. Right now I am really stuck and frustrated. Any help would be greatly appreciated!
It is enough to show that the sum for $n\geq0$ converges. Changing sums and manipulating I get:
$$\sum_{k\geq0}\frac{b^k}{k!}\sum_{n\geq k}\frac{1}{(n+1)^{a+1}\left(\begin{array}{c}n\\ k\end{array}\right)}$$
$$\leq\sum_{k\geq0}\frac{b^k}{k!}\sum_{n\geq k}\frac{1}{(n+1)^{a+1}}$$
$$\leq\sum_{k\geq0}\frac{b^k}{k!}\sum_{n\geq 0}\frac{1}{(n+1)^{a+1}}$$
$$=\sum_{k\geq0}\frac{b^k}{k!}C=Ce^{b}$$
where $C$ is a constant $<\infty$ because $a+1>1$.