Use substitution to solve for $x$ in the following equation:
$$\frac{1}{2-\sin x}=\sin x$$
This is what I have done so far:
$$\sin^2x-2\sin x+1=0$$
$$\arcsin(1)=\frac{\pi}{2}=x$$
The correct answer is apparently:
$$x=\frac{\pi}{2}+2\pi n$$
I don't really understand why the $+ 2πn$ is there, could anyone advise me?
Also, I'm not really sure about the substitution aspect of the question. Should I have done something along the lines of letting $y=\sin x$ and then solving for $y$?
Thanks.
The substitution seems unnecessary for this problem, but your intuition is right about using $y = \sin(x)$ should you have proceeded that way. Alternatively, you can complete the square $$\sin^2(x)-2\sin(x)+1 = 0 \\ \implies (\sin(x)-1)^2=0 \\ \implies \sin(x)-1 =0 \\ \implies \sin(x) = 1$$ Thinking back on the unit circle, you should know that $\sin(x) = 1$ when $x = \frac{\pi}{2}$. Remember, this corresponds to the polar coordinate $\left(1,\frac{\pi}{2}\right)$. However, you can also travel once around the unit circle (via adding $2\pi$) and you end up back at the same polar coordinate as $\left(1,\frac{\pi}{2}+2\pi\right) = \left(1,\frac{\pi}{2}\right)$. With that logic in mind, you can add or subtract multiples of $2\pi$ from $\frac{\pi}{2}$ and you will still be at the same coordinate. Hence for all $n \in \Bbb{Z}$, $$\left(1,\frac{\pi}{2}+2n\pi\right) = \left(1,\frac{\pi}{2}\right)$$ and thus $\sin(x) = 1$ when $x = \frac{\pi}{2},\space \frac{\pi}{2} \pm 2\pi, \space \frac{\pi}{2} \pm 4\pi, \ldots$