Use the following theorem to show that the set of irrational numbers is equinumerous to the set of real numbers

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The theorem states. Let A be a set and Let c be a non empty countable set disjoint from A. If A has a denumerable subset then A union C is equinumerous to A and conversely.

I was thinking of letting A be the rational numbers, and letting C be the irrational numbers that way it's disjoint, and then the subset of A would be integers, but then so the union of integers and irrational numbers would be equinumerous to rational numbers, but that doesn't help with the equinumerous of irrational and real numbers. Not sure what to do.

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Let $A$ be the irrational number and $C$ be the rational number, then $A$ and $C$ are disjoint.

Check that $A$ has a denumerable subset and you can conclude that $A \cup C = \mathbb{R}$ is equinumerous to $A$, the set of irrational numbers.

What remains for you to do is to check that $A$ has a denumerable subset, can you complete that?