I have the answer but not the procedure.
Using the Table of Fourier Series: $ \frac{L^2}{3} + \frac{4L^2}{\pi^2}\cdot∑\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}\cdot\cos(\frac{n\cdot\pi\cdot x}{L}) ;\\ f(x) = x^2 ; -L<x<L$
Using this show that the answer is $ ∑=\frac{\pi^2}{6}$
Parseval identity :$$\frac{a^2_0}{2}+\sum\limits_{n = 1 }^\infty a^2_n+b^2n = \frac{1}{{2\pi }}\int_{ - \pi }^\pi | f(x){|^2}{\mkern 1mu} dx$$ you can write Fourier series for $f(x)=x ; x \in (-\pi,\pi],T=2\pi$
$$\begin{array}{*{20}{l}} {f(x)}&{ = \frac{{{a_0}}}{2} + \sum\limits_{n = 1}^\infty {\left[ {{a_n}\cos \left( {nx} \right) + {b_n}\sin \left( {nx} \right)} \right]} }\\ {}&{ = \sum\limits_{n = 1}^\infty {2\frac{{{{( - 1)}^{n + 1}}}}{n}} \sin (nx),\quad .} \end{array}$$ now use identity $$\frac{a^2_0}{2}+\sum\limits_{n = 1 }^\infty a^2_n+b^2n = \frac{1}{{2\pi }}\int_{ - \pi }^\pi | f(x){|^2}{\mkern 1mu} dx\\ \frac{0}{2}+\sum\limits_{n = 1 }^\infty 4(\dfrac{(-1)^n}{n})^2 = \frac{1}{{2\pi }}\int_{ - \pi }^\pi x{^2}{\mkern 1mu} dx$$ so $$\sum\dfrac{1}{n^2}=\dfrac{\pi^2}{6}$$