I need to use theorem 2.1.1 in order to verify the following:
∼((∼p ∧ q) ∨ (∼ p ∧ ∼q)) ∨ (p ∧ q) ≡ p
I applied the Double Negative Law to get
((p ∧ q) ∨ (∼p ∧ ∼q)) ∨ (p ∧ q)
I noticed we have (p ∧ q) twice, which is redundant so I applied the Idempotent law to get:
(p ∧ q) ∨ (∼p ∧ ∼q)
not sure if that was the correct step. But from this point I get lost. Essentially this is saying p and q or not p and not q.
If anyone can let me know if I am going in the right direction and any help regarding what to do next, it would be greatly appreciated. I have been trying to solve this myself for a while now and haven't been able to get past this point.
You have to negate everything in the brackets following the negation symbol, not just the first term.
$\neg\underline{((\neg p ∧ q) ∨ (\neg p ∧ \neg q))} ∨ (p ∧ q)$
Apply deMorgan's
${(\neg\underline{(\neg p ∧ q)} \land \neg\underline{(\neg p ∧ \neg q)})} ∨ (p ∧ q)$
Again
${((\neg\neg p \lor \neg q) \land (\neg\neg p \lor \neg\neg q))} ∨ (p ∧ q)$
Now apply Double Negation
${((p \lor \neg q) \land (p \lor q))} ∨ (p ∧ q)$