I tried solving the problem but I get $U \cap U$ Which indeed $ \overline A \cup \overline B \cup \overline C$
Unfortunately I'm having a hard time proving it, any help?
I tried solving the problem but I get $U \cap U$ Which indeed $ \overline A \cup \overline B \cup \overline C$
Unfortunately I'm having a hard time proving it, any help?
You can use distributivity, note that:
$$\overline A \cup \overline B \cup (A \cap B \cap \overline C)= \overline A \cup \left[(\overline B \cup A)\cap(\overline B\cup B)\cap(\overline B\cup \overline C)\right].$$
Since obviously $\overline B\cup B=1$, then it equals
$$\overline A\cup\left[(\overline B \cup A)\cap(\overline B \cup \overline C)\right],$$
and using again distributivity:
$$\left[(\overline A \cup \overline B)\cup (\overline A \cup A)\right]\cap\left[(\overline A\cup \overline B)\cup(\overline A\cup\overline C)\right] =$$ $$= 1\cap (\overline A\cup \overline B \cup \overline C)=\boxed{\overline A\cup \overline B\cup \overline C}$$