Just wanted someone to check me to see if this is a valid proof. I've seen other proofs, but I can't use Cauchy condensation, or integral test as we haven't learned it yet. I have ratio test and comparison test at my disposal.
Show how that $\displaystyle\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac1{n\log n}$ diverges.
$n>0$, so for all $n$, $0<(n \log n)^{-1}$. By $\Bbb Q$ dense in $\Bbb R$, for all $n$ there exists a $q$ such that
$$0<q<\frac1{n\log n}<\frac1{2\log2}$$
By the Archimedean property, there exits an $m$ such that $mq>(2\log2)^{-1}$. Therefore,
$$0<\frac1{2m\log2}<q<\frac1{n\log n}<\frac1{2\log2}$$
As $\sum 1/m$ diverges as it is the tail harmonic series, $1/(n\log n)$ diverges.
I'm a bit unsure of this, but I have no idea how else to show it using the tools I have.
Note that using the inequality $\log(x)\le x-1$ (See This Answer), it is easy to show
$$\begin{align} \log(\log(n+1))-\log(\log(n))&=\log\left(\frac{\log(n+1)}{\log(n)}\right)\\\\ &\le\frac{\log(n+1)-\log(n)}{\log(n)}\\\\ &\le \frac1{n\log(n)}\tag 1 \end{align}$$
Summing both sides of $(1)$ reveals
$$\sum_{n=2}^N \frac{1}{n\log(n)}\ge \log(\log(N+1))-\log(\log(2))\to \infty$$
as $N\to \infty$. And we are done!