value of $\arctan (\cosh u)$ as $u \to -\infty $

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I am interested in the value of $\arctan (\cosh u)$ as $u\to -\infty $ $$\arctan (\cosh u)= \dfrac i 2 \log \left| \dfrac {1-i\cosh u}{1+i\cosh u} \right|$$

and since $$\cosh u= \dfrac {e^u+e^{-u}}{2}$$ we know it tends to positive infinity. So $$\dfrac i 2 \log \left| \dfrac {\dfrac {1}{\cosh u} - i} {\dfrac {1}{\cosh u} + i}\right| = \dfrac i 2 \log \left| \dfrac {-i}{i} \right| = - \dfrac i 2 \log \left| -1 \right|$$

Ok I am always confused with the modulus in the logs, whether it introduces modulus when we take $\log$ both sides of equation or not. If modulus does exist it becomes $0$, if not $\log(-1) = 1.36437635 i$ so $- \dfrac i 2 \log \left| -1 \right| = 0.68218817692$

But looking at the graph we can see $\arctan$ function tends to $\dfrac \pi 2$. So whats the reason for the difference when we use the log form?

Many thanks in advance

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Fundamentally, your question seems to be about calculating the limit of the arctangent in complex form (and so the $\cosh$ is not actually important). First, let's work out what the form should be, and then decide how to interpret it.

In complex form, $y=\tan{x}$ is $$ y = \frac{e^{ix}-e^{-ix}}{i(e^{ix}+e^{-ix})}, $$ using the definitions. We can rearrange this into a quadratic equation: $$ iy(e^{2ix}+1) = e^{2ix}-1 \\ (1-iy) e^{2ix} = (1+iy) \\ e^{2ix} = \frac{1+iy}{1-iy}. $$ Now, the problem comes when we take the logarithm: as a first guess, we'll get $$ x = \frac{1}{2i}\log{\left( \frac{1+iy}{1-iy} \right)}, $$ but since $e^{2\pi i}=1$, this is only one possibility: we could also add any multiple of $\pi$ to the right-hand side. So which one is the correct branch to choose? We have to take a continuous path from $y=0$, where we know $x=0$, so in fact the form above is right to start with. Now, we should look at the cases of $y$ large and positive real and $y$ large and negative real. For this, the form $$ \frac{1+iy}{1-iy} = \frac{1-y^2}{1+y^2} + i\frac{2y}{1+y^2} $$ is useful (and yes, does look rather like the $t$-formulae. Not a coincidence.). In particular, as $y \to +\infty$, the imaginary part is positive, so the argument of $e^{2ix}$ increases continuously, and in the complex plane, $-1$ is approached by passing above zero. This means that we must take the first value of $\log{(-1)} = i\arg{(-1)}$ with imaginary part/argument greater than zero: $i\pi$. Then the answer is that $\arctan{y} \to \pi/2$. Higher values ($3\pi/2, 5\pi/2, \dotsc$) would be reached by encircling the origin several times, but this cannot happen since the imaginary part of $\frac{1+iy}{1-iy}$ is always larger than zero.

On the other hand, if $y \to -\infty$, the imaginary part is always negative, so $-1$ is approached through decreasing values of the argument, and we end up at $-i\pi$, and $\arctan{y} \to -\infty$.