Let N couples be randomly seated at a rectangular table, men on one side and women on the other. Let X be the random variable describing the number of couples that end up being seated across from each other. What is the variance of X?
I uncovered this problem in my book and have found the following:
The seating arrangements are not independent.
the $E(X)$ is 1 if you use indicator variables, ie. if $I_k$ is the indicator variable that is 1 if a couple k is seated across from one another and 0 otherwise. so $X=\sum_{k=1}^n I_k$ and the $E(X)$ is worked out to be 1.
I believe I am correct so far, however, I am stuck here. Since the each $E_k$ is not entirely independent, I tried using $Var(X)= E(X^2) - (E(X))^2 = E(X^2) - 1$
So I need $E(X^2)$, which is a double sum. I do not know if this is solvable or if there is some term missing. Any direction would be appreciated.
Edit: Okay, so I also know that $ p(I_k)=1/n $ and by the same rational $p(I_k*I_j)= 1/(n^2-n)$. So I am assuming I am missing some term because each k is not independent. I will try the other definition of variance, but I am almost sure (frustratingly so) I am missing something.
Your work so far is perfect. Now you need
\begin{align} \mathbb E\left(X^2\right)&=\mathbb E\left(\left(\sum_{k=1}^nI_k\right)^2\right)\\ &=\mathbb E\left(\sum_{k=1}^nI_k^2+\sum_{j\ne k}I_jI_k\right)\\ &=\mathbb E\left(\sum_{k=1}^nI_k\right)+\mathbb E\left(\sum_{j\ne k}I_jI_k\right)\\ &=1+n(n-1)\mathbb E(I_1I_2)\;. \end{align}
Fixing couples $1$ and $2$ leaves $(n-2)!$ out of $n!$ arrangements, so $\mathbb E(I_1I_2)=\frac1{n(n-1)}$ and thus
$$ \mathbb E\left(X^2\right)=1+n(n-1)\frac1{n(n-1)}=2\;. $$