Suppose we have standardized inputs (mean $0$, variance $1$). So that $y=x_1\beta_1+x_2\beta_2+\varepsilon$, (we have no $\beta_0$ due to standardization). With $\varepsilon \sim N(0,\sigma^{2})$. Also note that we only have 2 variables.
We wish to show that $Var(\beta_1)=\frac{\sigma^{2}}{1-r_{12}^{2}}$, where $r_{12}$ is the sample correlation between $x_1,x_2$.
So I have arrived at $Var(\hat{\beta})=Var((X^{T}X)^{-1}X^{T}Y)=Var((X^{T}X)^{-1}X^{T}(X\beta+\varepsilon))=Var((X^{T}X)^{-1}X^{T}\sigma^2I) = \sigma^2(X^TX)^{-1}$
And I'm not exactly sure where to continue, any help would be appreciated.
I am not very comfortable with Mathjax. I provided the solution in the below image, but I believe that there is some missing term in the variance that you mentioned in your question. If we assume there are n terms available for each dependent and independent variable then