I don't really understand how to solve the following problem:
Var(X) where X = $\int_0^2 2t dW(t) + \int_4^6 W(t) dW(t)$
If I use $E [(A+B)^2] = E(A^2) + E(B^2) + 2E(AB)$ I get to the point where I have the cross product of the two integrals, but I dont know how to handle that.. But maybe there is an easier way?
Write the second integral as $$ \int_4^6[W(t) - W(4)]\,dW(t)+W(4)[W(6) - W(4)]=I_1+I_2, $$ and note that $I_1$ is independent of the first integral defining $X$. (Why?) The expectation of the product of the first integral $\int_0^2 2t\,dW(t)$ (call it $Y$) and $I_2$ is zero because $Y\cdot I_2 = [Y\cdot W(4)]\cdot [W(6)-W(4)]$ and the increment $W(6) -W(4)$ is independent of $\mathcal{F}_4:=\sigma\{W(s):0\le s\le 4\}$ while $Y\cdot W(4)$ is $\mathcal{F}_4$ measurable.