Following is the proof of the above proposition given in my textbook.
Let, $\arccos{x}={\theta}_2$ and $\arcsin{x}={\theta}_1$
$$\sin({\theta}_1 + {\theta}_2)=\sin{\theta_1}\cos{\theta_2}+\sin{\theta_2}\cos{\theta_1}$$
$$\implies \sin({\theta}_1 + {\theta}_2)=x^2+(\sqrt{1-x^2})(\sqrt{1-x^2})$$
$$\implies \arccos{x}+\arcsin{x}=\arcsin{(1)}$$
$$\implies \arccos{x}+\arcsin{x}=\frac{\pi}{2}$$
Problem:
When, $\cos{\theta_1}=-\sqrt{1-x^2}$
and $\sin{\theta_2}=\sqrt{1-x^2}$
Then, $${\theta}_1 + {\theta}_2=\arcsin{(-1)}$$
$$\implies \arccos{x}+\arcsin{x}=-\frac{\pi}{2}$$
Doesn't it disprove the given proposition?
No, because $\theta_1=\arcsin x\overset{\text{def}}{\iff}\sin\theta_1=x\enspace\textbf{and} -\frac\pi2\le\theta_1\le \frac\pi2$.
On this interval, $\cos\theta_1\ge 0$.