Verify the Divergence Theorem when the vector-field F has the form,
$\mathbf{F}(x,y,z) =x^2\hat{\imath}+z\hat{\jmath}$
and D is the upper half-ball $x^2+y^2+z^2≤ 1, z ≥ 0$
I am having trouble doing so, as I achieve two different answers.
When solving it by $\iint F\cdot ndS$ I get an answer, $\frac{-π}{4}$
and when solving it by $\iiint \nabla\cdot F dxdydz$ I get an answer of, $\frac{2π}{3}$
I would want to attach my work but I am not familiar with LaTeX and it would take me ages.
I would greatly appreciate it anyone to guide me through the answer.
Note that you cannot apply Gaus-Ostrogradski theorem (Divergence theorem) on a non - compact surface.
Meaning we need surface K=$\{(x,y,0)| x^2+y^2\le 1\}$
Lets try the first value. But first we need the normal $\vec{n}$
$$ z_x'=-\frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2-y^2}}\\ z_y'=-\frac{y}{\sqrt{1-x^2-y^2}} $$
Meaning $$ \vec{n}=\left (\frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2-y^2}},\frac{y}{\sqrt{1-x^2-y^2}},1 \right ) $$ Where $z=\sqrt{1-x^2-y^2}$
$$ \iint_S x^2 dx +zdy +0 dz=\iint_D \frac{x^3}{\sqrt{1-x^2-y^2}}+y\,\,dxdy=0 $$
And in the case when we apply Gaus-Ostrogradski on the Upper ball surface and K.
We get
$$ \iiint_T 2x \,\,\, dxdydz=2\int_{0}^{1}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \rho^2 \sin(\theta)\cos(\sigma) d\theta d\sigma d\rho=\frac{2}{3}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\cos(\sigma)d\sigma $$
Now we just need to prove that $\iint_K \vec{F} \cdot (dx,dy,dz)=0$
$$ \iint_K x^2 dx + 0 dy + 0dz=\iint_D \left (x^2,0,0 \right )\cdot \left( 0,0,1 \right) dxdy=0 $$
We have now proven the equality.