There are $20$ students and $15$ lessons. In each lesson, one student is randomly picked and asked a question by the teacher. Find expected value of amount of students asked a question during the 15 lessons and find its variance.
If $X$ is random variable representing number of students asked, then I guess to find $\mathbf{E}X$ we have to write something like $X=X_1+X_2+\dots$, but I cannot find some smart way to define those $X_i$, so a hint would be greatly appreciated.
Associate to any student $i\in\{1, ..., 20\}$ a random variable $X_i$ which counts the number of times the student $i$ has been asked a question during the $15$ lessons. The $X_i's$ each follow a binomial law of parameters $n=15$, $p=1/20$.
Then the random variable counting the number of different students that were asked at least one question is $X=1_{X_i\ge 1} + ... + 1_{X_{20}\ge 1}$
i.e., $\mathbb{E}(X)=P(X_1\ge 1) + ... + P(X_{20}\ge 1)$ $= 20(1-(19/20)^{15})$
Let's now compute the probabilities $P(X=k)$, for $k\in\{1, ..., 15\}$. We have $\left(20\atop{k}\right)$ choices of $k$ students among the class. For such a choice, let's count the number of possibilities that these $k$ students are asked at least once a question (and only these students). This amounts to count the number of surjection from $\{1, ..., 15\}$ to a set of $k$ elements, which is (after searching on Google) $S_{15,k}=\sum_{i=0}^{k} (-1)^{k-i}\left(k\atop{i}\right)i^{15}$.
As we have $(20)^{15}$ possible choices in total, this gives $$P(X=k)=\frac{1}{20^{15}}\left(20\atop{k}\right)\sum_{i=0}^{k} (-1)^{k-i}\left(k\atop{i}\right)i^{15}$$
We can check that it works trivially for $k=1$, and it's in fact not such a surprising formula. To count the number of surjections, we have to count all the functions (i.e., $k^{15}$) and remove the functions that take values in a stricly smaller subset (for all $1\le i<k$, we have $\left(k\atop{i}\right)$ such subsets), which amounts to subtract $\left(k\atop{i}\right)i^{15}$ functions, but we have to take care of the sub-subsets that could be subtracted twice, hence the power $(-1)^{k-i}$ ...
Given this formula, we can now compute the variance (to be continued ...)
Wolfram shows the result is the same ($=\frac{17586872970125200000}{1638400000000000000}$), and I believe that proving the formal equality will help us to compute the variance in an elegant way.
For the value of the variance, once again using Wolfram and the exact value for $P(X=k)$, we get $Var(X)=\frac{4426364363247399877754480594066706599}{20^{28}}\approx 1,64895$. But I still hope for something less horrible !