We know that for any $n$ relatively prime to $p$, $\mathbb{Q}_p(\zeta_n)$ is an unramified extension over $\mathbb{Q}$. On the other hand, we know that finite unramified extensions of a field complete with respect to a discrete valuation corresponds to finite extensions of its residue field. The residue field of $\mathbb{Q}_p$ is $\mathbb{F}_p$, and we know the finite extensions of $\mathbb{F}_p$ are $\mathbb{F}_{p^r} = \mathbb{F}_p(\zeta_{p^r-1})$, so the finite unramified extensions of $\mathbb{Q}_p$ should be $\mathbb{Q}_p(\zeta_{p^r-1})$.
Is it true that for any $n$ such that $(n,p) = 1$, there is an $r$ such that $\mathbb{Q}_p(\zeta_n) = \mathbb{Q}_p(\zeta_{p^r-1})$?
Yes, it’s true. Let the residue field of the unramified extension be $\Bbb F_{p^r}=\Bbb F_p(\zeta_{p^r-1})$. The primitive $(p^r-1)$-th root of unity in the residue field can be lifted to characteristic zero — there are any number of ways of seeing this, like Hensel, or the neat trick of lifting $\zeta_{p^r-1}\in\Bbb F_{p^r}$ to any $z$ in your unramified field, and then repeatedly taking $p^r$-th powers. The sequence you get is $p$-adically convergent.